SAMPLE EXAM FOR MEDICOLEGAL FORENSICS
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1. Over the years, the term "scientific evidence"
has come to be generically applied to a broad spectrum of expert __________
testimony that spans the sciences, the arts, and all kinds of skilled
professions.
A. certified
B. opinion *
C. character
D. eyewitness
2. The earliest known case in America to use
scientific expertise was a witch trial in 1665.
A. True *
B. False
3. The criminal bar has mostly neglected the
effective use of scientific evidence in all but the most high profile of cases.
A. True *
B. False
4. More highly-paid experts are found in civil cases
than in criminal cases.
A. True *
B. False
5. "Proof which tends to show the existence of a
fact without reliance on the proof of any other fact" is the definition of:
A. Circumstantial evidence
B. Testimonial evidence
C. Direct evidence *
D. Indirect evidence
6. "Evidence furnished by things themselves, on view
or inspection, as distinguished from a description of them by a witness" is the
definition of:
A. Circumstantial evidence
B. Documentary evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence *
7. Evidence that points the finger away from other
possibilities and requires an inference to be made by the trier of fact is
called:
A. Real
B. Direct
C. Circumstantial *
D. Documentary
8. The principal consideration in utilizing
scientific evidence today is whether:
A. The evidence sheds light on the guilt or
innocence of the defendant
B. The trier of fact can be assisted on this subject from this expert *
C. The expert possesses knowledge beyond the understanding of laymen
D. There is fairness in opposing sides having equal access to scientific
resources
9. The Frye test for the admissibility of scientific
evidence was drawn from the case of Frye v. U.S. which dealt with which
scientific technique?
A. toxicology
B. lie detection *
C. blood typing
D. accident reconstruction
10. Which of the following is the best restatement
of the Daubert test?
A. Scientific tests must be generally accepted as
reliable in the scientific community
B. Scientific tests need not be generally accepted as reliable in the scientific
community
C. Scientific tests are admissible so long as the expert explains the principles
used
D. Scientific tests are admissible if Type I and Type II errors rates can be
calculated *
11. The Coppolino test would be most applicable
when:
A. a scientific technique is widely known among the
lay public
B. there is a new technique which the profession at large is not familiar with
yet *
C. no sufficient foundation exists for the expert who testifies
D. a "battle of the experts" condition exists during the trial
12. Under the Marx standard, an expert witness using
a chart or diagram would normally be allowed to point to various places on it to
explain how they arrived at their scientific conclusion.
A. True
B. False *
13. In some instances, a court will exclude gruesome
photographs, on the grounds that:
A. a privileged relationship must be protected
B. the evidence is considered a violation of Constitutional safeguards
C. it would unduly prejudice the accused *
D. it is considered unreliable evidence
14. Noncritical deficiencies in the chain of custody
go to the admissibility of the evidence rather than its weight.
A. True
B. False *
15. In some, but not all states, the defense can use
the same crime lab as the prosecution.
A. True *
B. False
16. Statements from medical and scientific books can
be read by counsel and admitted as scientific evidence in lieu of an expert
witness who has refused to testify.
A. True
B. False *
17. Subpoena Duces Tecum means the expert:
A. Can provide their testimony as a letter to the
court
B. Is a hostile witness and has refused to testify
C. Must bring books, papers, reports, and other documents to court *
D. Is being compelled by the opposing side for a reverse opinion
18. A "Meta-expert" is an expert retained to advise
and test regarding technical evidence but not to be called as a witness.
A. True
B. False *
19. A "hypothetical" in the context of scientific
evidence most properly refers to:
A. the kind of question posed to an expert
B. the kind of case in which an expert is involved
C. whether or not the expert conducted any tests or experimentation on the
evidence *
D. whether or not the expert is called to the stand or not
20. An expert witness must be specially qualified by
all but WHICH of the following?
A. Familiarity with literature
B. Academic education
C. Professional experience
D. Previous experience as expert witness *
21. Experts are normally allowed to give their
opinions on hypothetical variants of the facts.
A. True *
B. False
22. An expert is not allowed to address the ultimate
issue unless:
A. The case involves non-expert witnesses who have
already addressed this issue
B. There are extenuating circumstances in which the expert is well qualified
C. The case involves sanity or insanity as the cause of the crime *
D. There is a foundation laid by previous experts
23. A "sidebar" conference occurs when the judge and
attorneys hold a discussion in hushed voices at the low end of the bench away
from the jury.
A. True *
B. False
24. Which of the following is NOT one of the three
tests of admissibility?
A. Relevancy
B. Materiality
C. Competency
D. Authenticity *
25. Evidence that is closest to the source and not a
reproduction or photocopy is called:
A. Relevant
B. Material
C. Competent
D. Authentic *
26. Evidence of probative value that deserves jury
consideration is usually most:
A. Relevant
B. Material *
C. Competent
D. Authentic
27. Where both parties concede the existence of a
fact or contents of a document, this is called a:
A. Inference
B. Stipulation *
C. Presumption
D. Judicial notice
28. Judicial notice may be taken upon motion of
counsel or by the judge without motion.
A. True *
B. False
29. Demonstrative evidence would include all the
following EXCEPT:
A. Plaster casts
B. Microscopic tests *
C. Maps
D. Photographs
30. Visual stimuli are retained by the human brain
_____ of the time.
A. 57%
B. 66%
C. 78%
D. 87% *
31. Enlargements of crime scene photographs cannot
focus on any one spot in the crime scene. The enlargement must include the whole
crime scene to give it context.
A. True
B. False *
32. What is the standard used to qualify
photographic evidence as competent?
A. Technical expertise
B. Prejudicial effect
C. Tampering, Contamination, Substitution
D. Representational accuracy *
33. If the coroner has already removed the body from
a crime scene, one of the police officers can "pose" as the dead body in a
photograph.
A. True *
B. False
34. Crime scene sketches which are introduced as
evidence itself usually consist of the rough draft done at the scene of the
crime.
A. True *
B. False
35. If a police artist testifies as to the identity
of a suspect from a composite, normally this is hearsay testimony, unless it is
to:
A. establish a foundation for later witnesses who
will identify the suspect
B. destroy an alibi defense by the defendant
C. corroborate or contradict the testimony of other police artists
D. rehabilitate a witness who has been caught up in some prior inconsistency *
36. As a rule, mug shots or police booking photos
can be used to identify a suspect in court if the police (number & date) plaque
is removed from the photo.
A. True *
B. False
37. What is the main problem with computer animation
evidence in court today?
A. Judges and juries don’t trust computers
B. The software is too crude by Frye standards
C. Experts must be knowledgeable of the computer programs algorithms *
D. It is too easy to tamper, substitute, and contaminate such evidence
38. According to medico-legal standards, the best
way to determine if a person’s judgment is impaired from alcohol is to test a
sample from the:
A. blood vessels of the brain *
B. urine
C. spinal fluid
D. breath
39. A blood test will always show a higher BAC level
than a breath test.
A. True *
B. False
40. Since alcohol is odorless, it is more correct
for an arresting officer to testify as to the "odors associated with alcoholic
beverages" than the "odor associated with alcohol".
A. True *
B. False
41. Women’s bodies absorb, distribute, and eliminate
alcohol faster than men’s bodies.
A. True *
B. False
42. Evidentiary tests, like use of the Intoxilyzer
400, require probable cause and a _________ before they can be used.
A. certified technician on hand
B. 20-minute waiting period *
C. calibration/instrumentation test
D. prediction of extrapolated results
43. What is the ratio (of alcohol in air to alcohol
in blood) that all Breath testing machines rely on to calculate BAC?
A. 1500:1
B. 1750:1
C. 2100:1 *
D. 4000:1
44. At what BAC level does death from respiratory
arrest begin to occur, according to the National Safety Council table?
A. 0.03 - 0.12
B. 0.25 - 0.40
C. 0.45 - 0.55 *
D. 0.65 - 0.80
45. A Breath testing machine that does NOT have its
own properly dedicated power source will:
A. pick up nearby radio transmissions
B. tend to retain air particles from the last person tested
C. cause electrical "spikes" to affect the printout *
D. produce "ghost" images in the digital readout
46. VASCAR stands for:
A. Variable Average Standard Car Auto Recognition
B. Volume Automobile Safety Crash Accident Reduction
C. Voltmeter Assisted Scanner Circuit And Register
D. Visual Average Speed Computer And Recorder *
48. With RADAR devices, there are many more types of
technical than operational errors.
A. True *
B. False
49. Which of the following best describes the effect
of running radar on an angle?
A. "ghost" error
B. bumping error
C. cosine error *
D. shadowing error
50. What is the main drawback today with using LASER
to detect speeding?
A. Who to stop becomes a subjective choice
B. Some cars are equipped with laser-repellant devices
C. Lasers don’t work well under poor weather conditions *
D. Laser beams spread out too far at long distances
51. Which method of testing radar devices do police
departments use most frequently?
A. Tuning forks
B. Operator validation
C. Internal diagnostics
D. Road tests *
52. Over 3000 companies regularly use handwriting
analysis on their employees.
A. True *
B. False
53. The 30 or so different handwriting analysis
methods can be broken down into three categories: individual letter formation
analysis, stroke analysis, and ___________.
A. Holistic/Gestalt analysis *
B. Surface Friction analysis
C. Pressure analysis
D. Position on Paper analysis
54. Forensic Stylistics is a name for graphology
techniques employed by the FBI and/or other police investigators.
A. True *
B. False
55. Which of the following is NOT one of the
standard three areas of personality that graphologists report on?
A. Intelligence
B. Attitude toward Work
C. Interpersonal Skills
D. Religious convictions *
56. Questioned Document Examiners usually don’t have
to explain their conclusions. Their testimony normally consists of just giving
their opinion.
A. True *
B. False
57. Who first developed Questioned Document
Examination into a profession in 1870?
A. Auguste Vollmer
B. Alphonse Bertillon *
C. Emile Durkheim
D. Francois Vicouq
58. A person with handwriting characterized by
strong downward slants when they cross their t's would be indicative of someone
_____.
A. Defiant of Authority
B. Domineering/Sarcastic *
C. Desirous of Attention
D. Dishonest/Lying
59. A person with handwriting characterized by big,
open loops in their t's, l's, h's, b's, and even w's would be indicative of
someone ______.
A. Defiant of Authority
B. Domineering/Sarcastic
C. Angry/Resentful
D. Desirous of Sexual Affection *
60. What element is alloyed with lead to harden
bullets?
A. Aluminum
B. Antimony *
C. Cadmium
D. Silicon
61. Which branch of ballistics deals with the study
of impact upon a target?
A. exterior
B. interior
C. terminal *
D. motion
62. The bore diameter of a weapon is measured from
opposing _____ to opposing _____.
A. groove
B. land *
C. breech
D. bearing
63. The class characteristics of a weapon would be
sufficient to tell if a particular weapon fired a specific bullet.
A. True
B. False *
64. Which of the following would be the gauge of the
shotgun if the bore diameter would hold a lead ball 1/12 of a pound in weight?
A. 10
B. 12 *
C. 16
D. 20
65. A handgun that requires the operator to cock the
hammer manually is called a:
A. semiautomatic
B. choked revolver
C. single action *
D. double action
66. A carbine is another term for a short barreled
rifle.
A. True *
B. False
67. Rifling inside the bore of a weapon is a class
characteristic, but striations or striae are individual characteristics.
A. True *
B. False
68. Which type of weapon does not have any rifling
or striae?
A. Automatic
B. Revolver
C. Rifle
D. Shotgun *
69. Bullet diameter is usually somewhat larger than
the bore diameter of a weapon.
A. True *
B. False
70. Expanding nose bullets have a ___________
effect.
A. mushrooming
B. fragmenting
C. keyhole entry
D. both mushrooming and fragmenting *
71. Hollow-point bullets have a ___________ effect.
A. mushrooming
B. fragmenting *
C. keyhole entry
D. both mushrooming and fragmenting
72. What type of marks are usually found at a crime
scene involving use of semiautomatic weapons?
A. breech marks
B. firing pin
C. ejector & extractor
D. All of the above *
73. What is the most common substance for a bullet
recovery tank in firing test bullets?
A. cotton
B. gelatin
C. water *
D. paper
74. Matching bullets under a microscope is harder
with a .22 caliber than with a .38 caliber.
A. True *
B. False
76. How many years does a medical doctor usually
spend as an intern after graduating from medical school?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4 *
D. 5
77. (Fill in the blank) What professional association certifies Forensic Pathologists by examination?
_____________________________________________________ (American Board of Pathology)
78. Both Medical Examiners and Coroners can call
"inquests" if they want.
A. True *
B. False
79. The autopsy rate (number of autopsies being
conducted) is on the increase in the United States in recent years.
A. True
B. False *
81. Forensic pathologists who testify as to their
autopsy findings are always required to testify for the prosecution.
A. True
B. False *
82. "Anatomic" pathology involves microscopic
analysis of tissue samples from the body.
A. True
B. False *
85. (Calculate and fill in the blank) You have just found a dead body in a computer room. The body temperature measures 83 degrees, and the room temperature is constantly maintained at 74 degrees. The body appears to have been placed there after it started decomposing. How long has this person been dead?
_______________________ (39 hours)
87. (Fill in the blank with a definition or explanation) What is "livor mortis"?
_______________________________ (the pinking of death, part of lividity, etc)
90. (Calculate and fill in the blank) You have just
found a badly decomposed body out in the woods, and there is extensive maggot
activity in the abdomen area. You put your gloves on and reach in to find the
largest maggot, which appears to be about 12 millimeters in length. How long has
this person been dead?
___________________ (14 days)
94. What percentage of the time is a "Goodbye Cruel
World" note left in a suicide case?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 25% *
D. 40%
95. (fill in the blank) Most people who die by being burned to death end up in a death position known as "pugilistic". What does this mean?
________________________________________ (a fighter or boxer position)
For each of the following questions, read the scenario, and then use the following Medical Examiner's method of thinking to identify each of four things:
CONTRIBUTING CAUSE ----- MECHANISM ---- IMMEDIATE CAUSE ---- MANNER OF DEATH
98. A 23-year old female college student was found
dead in the parking lot of the mall at 11:30 PM Friday. There were extensive
injuries around the ankles, contusions, burns, and bruises around the torso,
lividity was present on her back, and rigor mortis had just set in around the
neck.
Vehicle Negligence ---- Shock or Blunt Force ---- Hemorrhage ---- Accidental
99. A 67-year old man was found dead in the nursing home at 6:30 am Saturday. Next to his bed was a half-empty bottle of prescription sleeping pills. Nursing staff report that he had been despondent as of late, expressing some resentment toward the staff.
Drug Overdose ---- Lack of Oxygen/Blood Flow ---- Asphysia ---- Suicide
100. A 40-year old single mother of two was found
dead in her apartment, apparently the victim of injuries sustained by severe
beatings around the head with a blunt instrument. Her boyfriend, who is an
ex-felon for murder, was overheard shouting at her in the apartment immediately
before the death was discovered by the landlord.
Injuries Sustained from Beating on Head ---- Shutdown of Vital Organs ---- Hemorrhage ---- Homicide
101. Toxicological evidence, like cyanide traces in
the body, can be destroyed by embalming fluid containing formaldehyde.
A. True *
B. False
108. The printout from a Spectrophotometric test is
usually in the form of a bar chart while the printout from a Chromatographic
test is usually in the form of a sine wave.
A. True *
B. False
112. In VNTR (Variable Number of Tandem Repeat) DNA
analysis, the sites at which restriction enzymes cut the DNA molecule are called
_____________ sites.
A. cleavage
B. recognition *
C. scissored
D. paired
113. When the FBI laboratory conducts DNA analysis,
they use multi-locus probes in a "cocktail" format, much like the procedure
pioneered by Cellmark Diagnostics.
A. True
B. False *
115. An autoradiograph, or "autorad" introduced as
DNA evidence in court would typically contain how may "lanes" in a rape case,
for example?
A. 2
B. 3 *
C. 4
D. 5
116. Which of the following is NOT one of the things
that can go wrong in a DNA analysis?
A. contamination of the sample at the time of
collection
B. partial digestion by the restriction enzymes
C. inadequate electrical flow through the electrophoresis gel *
D. band shifting due to having too much DNA in one lane
118. What is the most common standard for discovery
of DNA evidence?
A. revised-Frye
B. Adams
C. post-Daubert
D. Castro *
119. DNA banking (creating a national database of
the DNA patterns of felons) has been declared unconstitutional and is not being
done in the United States.
A. True
B. False *
120. Forensic odontology makes use of "points of
comparison" like in fingerprinting or voiceprinting.
A. True
B. False *
121. To become a forensic odontologist, a person must be a dentist and associated with:
______________________________________ (a coroner's office)
122. What is the name for the teeth in the human
body that are pointed & fang-shaped?
A. incisors
B. cuspids *
C. bicuspids
D. premolars
123. Expert testimony by a forensic odontologist
used to be admitted under the Marx standard. What standard is most commonly used
today?
A. Frye
B. Daubert
C. Gustafson
D. Milone *
124. Forensic anthropology is used appropriately for
ALL of the following EXCEPT:
A. to prove corpus delecti
B. to corroborate a confession
C. to narrow down a list of suspects *
D. to assist with child pornography cases
125. As a rule of thumb, how many years does an
artifact (bone) have to remain undiscovered for it to fall into the realm of
archaeology instead of anthropology.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 50 *
D. 70
126. In forensic anthropology, what does
"macroscopic" method mean?
A. the scientist uses plain old observation to
identify bones
B. the scientist uses observation and microscopic examination
C. the scientist analyzed both bone and tissue samples *
D. the scientist conducted both field (crime scene) and laboratory analysis
127. Estimation of age by a forensic anthropologist
is best when the person is under what age?
A. 60
B. 50
C. 40
D. 30 *
128. What type of statistical technique is used to
estimate sex, race, and height from long bones?
A. chi-square
B. ANOVA
C. regression *
D. Monte Carlo
129. There are visible differences in the eye
sockets (orbits) of skulls from different races.
A. True *
B. False
130. Which insanity test is the oldest at law?
A. ALI
B. Durham
C. Currens
D. M'Naghten *
131. The Insanity Defense Reform Act of 1984 had
it's most profound impact in which area?
A. it opened the door to various syndromes as
exonerating evidence
B. it closed the door to mental disorders alone as the basis of insanity
defenses *
C. it revived the Durham test as the basis for assessing insanity
D. it left courts free to allow juries to determine insanity
132. Forensic psychiatry is so well-established that
experts in this field who testify can NOT normally be challenged by reference to
citations or books in the field.
A. True *
B. False
133. How many extra years does a psychiatrist have
to stay in medical school?
A. 1 *
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
134. An "organic" mental illness falls under which
medical specialty?
A. Osteology
B. Periodontology
C. Neurology *
D. Psychopharmocology
135. Which "functional" mental illness is
statistically the rarest?
A. schizophrenia
B. paranoia *
C. affective
D. neurosis
136. Which of the following would be part of a
Mental Status Exam?
A. observing the patient at play
B. having the patient submit a sample of writing
C. asking the patient to count backwards by sevens *
D. giving the patient a written math test
137. Which insanity test is the most difficult for
the defense to satisfy?
A. ALI
B. Durham
C. Currens
D. M'Naghten *
138. The prosecution has the right, and even the
burden, to compel a psychiatric exam anytime the question of insanity comes up
during a trial.
A. True *
B. False
139. Even though the physician-patient privilege is
waived in insanity cases, the Miranda rule still applies, and the evaluating
psychiatrist must issue Miranda warnings or have them read before the
evaluation.
A. True *
B. False
140. A Neuropsychologist offers testimony most often
on what subject?
A. predictions of dangerousness
B. diagnosis of mental disorder
C. behaviors of the brain-damaged *
D. cognitions of the brain-damaged
141. To be a forensic psychologist (not a
psychiatrist) requires a special state license.
A. True
B. False *
142. A person can practice as a clinical
psychologist with a Master's degree.
A. True
B. False *
143. Which part of the legal role of forensic
psychology gave way to the creation of various diminished capacity syndromes?
A. predictions of dangerousness
B. diagnosis of mental disorder
C. testimony about probable state of mind *
D. testimony about probable control of body
145. What does "automatism" mean?
A. a condition in which criminal behavior is
committed while sleepwalking
B. a condition in which the defendant had a delayed reaction to trauma
C. a condition in which a person is easily suggestible to commit a crime
D. a condition involving blackouts and an unconsciousness defense *
146. Which of the following syndromes is used
primarily by lawyers to bolster the testimony of a weak witness?
A. postpartum psychosis
B. abuse accomodation *
C. Post-Traumatic Stress
D. Attention Deficit
147. Pre-menstrual Syndrome (PMS) is acceptable as
an insanity defense in the U.S.
A. True
B. False *
148. Nicotine Withdrawal Syndrome was a recognized
DSM III mental disorder.
A. True *
B. False
149. Predictions of future dangerousness are usually
about what percent accurate?
A. 20%
B. 30% *
C. 40%
D. 50%
150. Diagnosis of mental disorder is as accurate as
diagnosis of a medical condition.
A. True *
B. False
151. The best way to distinguish
quality among social science research is to rely upon:
A. meta-analysis
B. validity and reliability *
C. prediction and control
D. verstehen
152. Which case is the most well-known
example of social science in law?
A. Plessy v. Ferguson
B. Brown v. Board of Education *
C. Terry v. Ohio
D. Zimbardo v. Texas Dept. of Corrections
153. Social scientific profiling has
had more success in law at profiling victims than offenders.
A. True *
B. False
154. Polygraph evidence is NOT legally
admissible unless there is a:
A. prima facie reason
B. reasonable probability
C. judicial notice
D. stipulated agreement *
155. The "friendly examiner" syndrome
refers to:
A. an examiner who uses
psycholinguistics
B. an examiner who makes a truthful subject appear to be lying
C. an examiner who makes a deceitful subject appear to be truthful *
D. an examiner who works pro bono
156. Which of the following is NOT part
of polygraph machinery?
A. pneumograph
B. hydrometer *
C. galvanometer
D. cardiospymograph
157. Which of the following would be a
"control" question during a polygraph exam?
A. Did you commit a burglary on the
night of September 11th?
B. Are you sitting down right now?
C. Are you usually an honest person? *
D. Have you ever been charged with a crime before?
Last updated: Nov 20, 2006
Not an official webpage of APSU, copyright restrictions apply, see
Megalinks in Criminal Justice
O'Connor, T. (Date of Last Update at bottom of page). In Part of web cited
(Windows name for file at top of browser), MegaLinks in Criminal Justice.
Retrieved from http://www.apsu.edu/oconnort/rest of URL accessed on
today's date.